Coursera- Project Execution: Running the Project

All Weeks Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers

Week 1

Get all the latest and correct weekly challenges 1 Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers, this course is a part of Google Project Management: Professional Certificate available on Coursera offered by Google.

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers

Test your knowledge: Project tracking

Q1. How does tracking and measuring progress benefit a project? Select all that apply.

• Helps team members and stakeholders stay on top of deadlines and goals
• Disregards new risks so the team can focus on current tasks
• Makes project information transparent
• Builds confidence that the project will finish on time, in scope, and within budget

Q2. Which items should you track throughout the project execution phase? Select all that apply.

• Individual team members’ schedules
• Key decisions and changes to the project
• Project costs
• Progress toward milestones

Q3. Which of the following are tools for tracking project progress? Select all that apply.

• Burndown charts
• Gantt charts
• RACI charts
• Roadmaps

Q4. Which of the following are common components of a project status report? Select all that apply.

• Summary
• Milestones and tasks
• Issues
• Roles and responsibilities
• Costs
• Status

Test your knowledge: Dependencies

Q1. Imagine that a restaurant supplier has been asked to develop a new dessert for their client, a popular restaurant chain. Even though they are not contractually required to do so, the project team from the restaurant supplier decides to get the client to approve the recipe for the dessert before beginning development on it. From the restaurant supplier’s perspective, what two dependencies does this scenario demonstrate?

• Mandatory dependency
• Internal dependency
• Discretionary dependency
• External dependency

Q2. What steps help project managers manage dependencies? Select all that apply.

• Compare dependencies with competitors
• Proper identification
• Efficient communication
• Continuous monitoring and control
• Record dependencies
• Group dependencies by cost

Q3. Imagine you are a project manager working on a large campaign for a public relations (PR) firm. One of the designers you have contracted with has pulled out of the project at the last minute, requiring your in-house design team to take on more work while you search for a replacement. What type of project change does this represent?

• Force majeure
• Changing priorities
• Capacity and people available
• Budget or resource limitation
• Scope creep
• New or changing dependencies

Q4. You and your stakeholders will use change request forms to stay on top of and manage changes. What information should be included in these forms? Select all that apply.

• The expected outcome of the discussion
• Similar changes on past projects
• An in-depth proposal for the necessary changes
• Background information
• A short description of the current situation

Weekly challenge 1

Q1. Imagine you are managing a project that hits a major milestone early, putting the team ahead of schedule. This alters the project plan’s original course of action. What is the name for this type of event?

• A reset
• A risk
• An issue
• A deviation

Q2. Which five items should you track throughout the project execution phase?

• Project costs
• Project goals
• Key tasks and activities
• Action items
• Project schedule
• Progress toward milestone

Q3. Which tool provides an overview of a project’s common elements, summarizes them as a snapshot, and communicates project status to the team and stakeholders in a centralized place?

• Burndown chart
• Roadmap
• Gantt chart
• Project status report

Q4. How does a roadmap differ from a Gantt chart?

• A roadmap measures time against the amount of work completed and remaining; a Gantt chart is useful for large projects with many dependencies
• A roadmap tracks big milestones and includes a high-level project overview; a Gantt chart is useful for large projects with many dependencies
• A roadmap is useful for large projects with many dependencies; a Gantt chart measures time against the amount of work completed and remaining
• A roadmap is useful for large projects with many dependencies; a Gantt chart tracks big milestones and includes a high-level project overview

Q5. Imagine that a client wants to add an auction of donated items to a fundraising event. The project manager is currently executing the project for a dinner and short concert. Which of the triple constraints does this change impact the most?

• Timeline
• Budget
• Scope

Q6. How does a change request form differ from an escalation email?

• Change request forms help teams manage proposed changes; escalation emails enlist leadership to remove obstacles, reinforce priorities, and validate next steps
• Change request forms help teams remove obstacles, reinforce priorities, and validate next steps; escalation emails enlist leadership to manage proposed changes
• Change request forms enlist leadership to remove obstacles, reinforce priorities, and validate next steps; escalation emails help teams manage proposed changes
• Change request forms enlist leadership to manage proposed changes; escalation emails help teams remove obstacles, reinforce priorities, and validate next steps

Q7. Which of the following steps are part of dependency management? Select all that apply.

• Continuous monitoring and control
• Recording dependencies
• Efficient communication
• Eliminating dependencies

Q8. What tool can project managers use to calculate risk exposure and prioritize risks using high, medium, and low rankings?

• ROAM technique
• Probability and impact matrix
• Mitigation plan
• Risk register

Q9. Under what conditions should you send an escalation email? Select all that apply.

• A project team member identifies a potential risk that may have an impact in several months.
• Key stakeholders need to sign off on a final decision.
• A problem inconveniences the core project team, but they resolve it themselves.
• A problem leads to major changes in budget or timeline.

Q10. How can escalation benefit a project? Select all that apply.

• Provides checks and balances
• Speeds up decision-making
• Makes external dependencies trackable
• Encourages team participation

Q11. As a project manager, you’re implementing the ROAM technique for a new risk. You assign the risk to a team member so they can resolve it and monitor it to completion. Which ROAM action did you take?

• Resolved
• Owned
• Accepted
• Mitigated

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers – Weekly Challenge 2

All Weeks Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers

Get all the latest and correct weekly challenges 1 Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers, this course is a part of Google Project Management: Professional Certificate available on Coursera offered by Google.

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers

Test your knowledge: Quality management

Q1. As a project manager, you conduct a process to determine which standards of quality are relevant to the project and how to satisfy them. Which quality management concept does this describe?

• Quality control
• Quality assurance
• Quality standards
• Quality planning

Q2. Which quality management concept—often set at the beginning of a project—uses multiple guidelines, such as reliability and usability, to ensure its desired outcome?

• Quality planning
• Quality control
• Quality assurance
• Quality standards

Q3. As a project manager, you and your team monitor project results and delivery to determine if the desired results are being met. If issues are identified, you take corrective action to resolve them. Which quality management concept does this describe?

• Quality planning
• Quality standards
• Quality control
• Quality assurance

Q4. As a project manager, you and your team conduct a review process. Your goal is to evaluate whether the project is moving toward delivering a high-quality service or product and to prevent defects before they occur. Which quality management concept does this describe?

• Quality assurance
• Quality standards
• Quality control
• Quality planning

Test your knowledge: Compile feedback to measure satisfaction

Q1. A project manager should ask open-ended questions when utilizing which of the following three interpersonal skills?

• Tool understanding
• Empathetic listening
• Negotiating
• Trust-building

Q2. When is an optimal time to send out a feedback survey?

• Only after a product or service launches
• Both before and after a product or service launches
• Only before a product or service launches

Q3. What are the main goals of a user acceptance test (UAT)? Select all that apply.

• To confirm that the product, service, or process is working as intended
• To demonstrate that the product, service, or process is behaving in expected ways in real-world scenarios
• To identify issues that need to be addressed before considering the project to be done
• To persuade potential customers to use the new product, service, or process

Q4. As a project manager running a user acceptance test (UAT), you take your users through a sequence of steps to accomplish tasks in your product. What is the term for these steps?

• Acceptance criteria
• Edge cases
• Critical user journey (test cases)
• Feedback survey

Q5. Which of the following are best practices for running an effective UAT? Select all that apply.

• Create test cases for each item being tested.
• Determine user credentials and access permissions the day of the test.
• Write UAT scripts based on user stories.
• Let users decide their own plan for the testing process.
• Define and write down the acceptance criteria.

Test your knowledge: Continuous improvement

Q1. Fill in the blank: _____ is an ongoing effort to improve products or services. It begins with a project manager recognizing processes and tasks that they should create, eliminate, or improve.

• Experimental improvement
• Process improvement
• Control improvement
• Continuous improvement

Q2. As a project manager, you decide to use a continuous improvement framework to help you measure success. The framework you choose has a step that involves conducting performance metrics and data collection to establish baselines. Which framework does this describe?

• PDCA
• KPI
• DMAIC
• UAT

Q3. Which continuous improvement framework does the following scenario represent?

A project manager identifies an ongoing communication issue where a vendor isn’t getting notified about product shipments. To fix the problem, they first plan additional communication strategies. Next, they implement one of their strategies—send an additional email after each shipment. Then, they check to verify that the customer receives the email. Finally, they review the process to fine-tune and ensure continuous improvement.

• DMAIC
• UAT
• PDCA
• KPI

Q4. What’s the main difference between a program and a portfolio?

• A program is a collection of projects, whereas a portfolio is a collection of both projects and programs across an entire organization.
• A program contains better-organized projects than a portfolio.
• A portfolio contains more complex projects than a program.
• A program contains current projects, whereas a portfolio contains previous projects.

Q5. A construction company tests a strategy to reduce costs on a collection of projects. This experiment is part of a long-term business objective. What position would most likely oversee this test across several projects?

• Program manager
• Portfolio manager
• Project manager
• Primary stakeholder

Test your knowledge: Retrospectives

Q1. A project manager sends out an anonymous team survey for feedback after a customer reports they’re not happy with a product feature. Then, the project manager calls a team meeting to discuss the feedback in the survey. During the meeting, the project manager asks the team to use “we” language instead of “you” language. At the end of the meeting, the team discusses what lessons the team will carry into future work.

Which three retrospective best practices are the project manager and team following?

• Use a time-boxed agenda
• Don’t focus only on the negative
• Change perspective
• Be blameless with teammates

Q2. What are the main purposes of a retrospective? Select all that apply.

• Facilitate improved collaboration
• Eliminate all team miscommunications
• Promote positive changes
• Encourage team-building

Q3. What are some typical reasons for holding a retrospective? Select all that apply.

• Reached the end of a Sprint
• Missed deadlines or expectations
• Kicked off a new project
• Delivered a new product

Q4. Fill in the blank: As a project manager, the way you choose to structure your retrospective will depend on _____.

• your customer
• your project scope
• your team and workplace
• your project budget

Week 2

Weekly Challenge 2

Q1. As a project manager, you’re overseeing a product launch. You meet with customers to determine the product’s quality standards. Then, you create processes and documentation necessary to achieve the expected quality. Which quality management concept do these tasks represent?

• Quality control
• Quality planning
• Assurance standards
• Assurance planning

Q2. During which step of the quality management process does a project manager ask questions such as: “How will I determine if the quality measures will lead to project success?” and “What outcome do my customers want at the end of this project?”

• Quality control
• Quality planning
• Quality action
• Quality assurance

Q3. To receive authentic and honest feedback from customers, what strategy should a project manager use?

• Ask for stakeholder feedback and relay it to customers in hopes to close the gap between the customer’s expectation and the project’s needs
• Ask for feedback after the project finishes because customers won’t fully understand the product until it’s complete
• Incentivize customers with a gift card because they’re more likely to respond
• Ask open-ended questions and listen to the customer’s current state versus their desired state

Q4. During a user acceptance test (UAT), the users identify outliers that the original requirements didn’t account for, such as extreme use of the product. What UAT quality control step does this represent?

• Edge cases
• Unknown cases
• Business cases
• User error cases

Q5. Before running a process improvement experiment, a project manager needs to first identify processes to change and leave unchanged. What’s the experiment-related term for the unchanged process?

• Comparable group
• Control group
• Variable group
• Research group

Q6. As a project manager, you have already identified a process-based problem to improve, found its root cause, and implemented a solution. Now, you take the next step: You monitor the new process to ensure the changes are beneficial to the team. Which DMAIC step are you currently applying?

• Improve
• Define
• Control
• Analyze

Q7. As a project manager applying the PDCA process, you’ve already attempted to fix a process that you believe is causing a common customer complaint. As your next step, you compare your results to the goal to determine if you fixed the issue. What PDCA step will you apply?

• Plan
• Do
• Check
• Act

Q8. A project team discovers an efficient process to more quickly develop a product. The program manager implements the idea in several other projects. When the portfolio manager learns that the more efficient process is working across several projects, they recommend it to several programs. This scenario exemplifies which best practice?

• Positive feedback
• Word-of-mouth communication
• Hierarchical communication
• Continuous improvement

Q9. Fill in the blank: The way a project manager decides to structure a retrospective depends on _____.

• team and workplace
• the latest project management trends
• project sponsor preference
• the previous project manager’s agenda

Q10. As a project manager, you hold a retrospective. During the meeting, you give the team an opportunity to discuss risks that materialized: Were there any gaps between the original plan and its execution? Which retrospective step does this represent?

• Next steps
• Future considerations
• Lessons learned
• Action items

Week 3

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers Weekly Challenge 3

Test your knowledge: Prioritizing and analyzing data

Q1. As a project manager, you collect opinion-based feedback surveys in an effort to improve a product. What do you call this type of data?

• Quantitative data
• Qualitative data
• Projection data
• Key performance indicator (KPI) data

Q2. As a project manager, you track the number of open and closed tasks per team member. What do you call this type of data?

• Interview data
• Observational data
• Qualitative data
• Quantitative data

Q3. As a project manager, how can you help ensure the privacy of data collected from your users, stakeholders, and others for your projects? Select all that apply.

• Collect as much data about your users as possible.
• Use security tools.
• Increase data privacy awareness.
• Anonymize data.

Q4. Fill in the blank: During the _____ step of the data analysis process, you collect and store the data you will analyze.

• ask
• prepare
• process
• analyze
• share
• act

Test your knowledge: Presenting and visualizing data

Q1. When crafting a story, what is the first step a project manager takes to think like the people they are presenting to and better understand their questions and concerns?

• Shape the story.
• Collect the data.
• Choose a visual representation.
• Define the audience.

Q2. During what storytelling step does a project manager design an infographic or chart to present the data?

• Collect the data.
• Choose a visualization representation.
• Shape the story.
• Gather the feedback.

Q3. During what storytelling step does a project manager vet data for credibility?

• Shape the story.
• Define the audience.
• Choose a visual representation.
• Filter and analyze the data.

Q4. When turning data into a story, a project manager first defines their audience. What is the second step?

• Gather feedback.
• Choose a visual representation.
• Collect the data.
• Shape the story.

Project Execution: Running the Project Weekly challenge 3 Answers

Q1. From the project manager’s perspective, which of the following are the benefits of using data? Select all that apply.

• Solve problems
• Understand performance
• Understand your users
• Make better decisions
• Improve processes
• Increase the project timeline

Q2. Which of the following are examples of productivity metrics? Select all that apply.

• Milestones
• Projections
• Issues
• Durations

Q3. Fill in the blank: _____ is when the project manager determines how long it will take to complete a project based on the resources available.

• Planning
• Prediction
• Brainstorming
• Projection

Q4. Fill in the blank: A(n) ______ is an observable change that can help project managers determine the overall health of a project.

• milestone
• risk
• issue
• signal

Q5. Fill in the blank: _____ data are qualities or things that you can’t measure with numerical data.

• Objective
• Client
• Qualitative
• Quantitative

Q6. What is the third step in storytelling that vets the data for credibility and filters the information?

• Gather the feedback
• Analyze the data
• Shape the story
• Collect the data
• Define the audience
• Choose a visual representation

Q7. Fill in the blank: A _____ is a measurable value or metric that demonstrates how effective an organization is at achieving important objectives.

• statistic
• key performance indicator (KPI)
• task deadline
• milestone

Q8. Which of the following tactics may help you be memorable during a presentation? Select all that apply.

• Make eye contact and use-friendly facial expressions.
• Maintain an upright posture with hands at your side.
• Pace yourself by using intentional pauses.
• Confirm the audience has no questions before you start.
• Elevate the volume of your voice to emphasize key points.

Q9. As a project manager processing data, you avoid using data that isn’t representative of the population. This tactic helps avoid which data bias?

• Observer bias
• Sampling bias
• Interpretation bias
• Confirmation bias

Q10. As a project manager analyzing data, you enter your data into a spreadsheet, ensure the data is accurate by removing duplicate responses and inconsistencies, and confirm the data contains no typos or errors. Which data analysis best practice does this represent?

• Ask
• Share
• Analyze
• Process
• Prepare

Q11. As a project manager creating a story, you ask yourself questions like: “Does the story answer the initial question and demonstrate the solution?”, “Is it original and does it offer a unique point of view?”, and “What is the compelling takeaway for the audience?” In what storytelling step should you ask these questions?

• Define the audience
• Shape the story
• Get feedback
• Filter and analyze the data
• Find the data

Q12. Imagine you’re preparing a data presentation. To explain your data, you need to demonstrate a relationship between data sets and display values for the data points of two different variables. Which data visualization tool can help?

• Line graph
• Scatter plot
• Bar graph
• Pie chart

Week 4

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers Weekly Challenge 4

Test your knowledge: Effective teams

Q1. Which five factors have the greatest impact on team effectiveness?

• Psychological safety, dependability, structure and clarity, meaning, and impact
• Psychological safety, methodology, structure and clarity, mastery, and impact
• Dependability, structure and clarity, understanding, meaning, and impact
• Dependability, methodology, structure and clarity, mastery, and impact

Q2. Which three of the following statements are generally true of teams that feel a sense of psychological safety?

• Team members are comfortable resolving interpersonal conflict.
• Team members feel comfortable taking risks.
• Team members know they can seek different opinions.
• Team members don’t require frequent communication with the project manager.

Q3. Which key factor of team effectiveness involves setting, negotiating, and meeting expectations?

• Meaning
• Psychological safety
• Impact
• Dependability

Q4. Which key factor of an effective team provides a clear sense of roles, plans, goals, and how individual work affects the group?

• Meaning
• Structure and clarity
• Impact
• Psychological safety

Q5. In what way does a team’s sense of meaning impact their effectiveness?

• Teams find a sense of purpose in their work or its results.
• Teams feel safe taking risks.
• Teams complete their work on time.
• Teams understand expectations and consequences.

Test your knowledge: Managing team development and dynamics

Q1. Imagine you are a project manager and two of your team members disagree about how to approach a workflow problem. The debate leads to a personal conflict, so you listen to their arguments and propose a compromise that will move the project forward. During which stage of team development does this scenario take place?

• Performing
• Storming
• Forming
• Norming

Q2. Imagine you are managing a local craft festival and one of the vendors requests a larger booth at the last minute.You delegate the issue to your operations coordinator because you’re confident they can resolve it effectively. During which stage of team development does this scenario take place?

• Norming
• Forming
• Storming
• Performing

Q3. Imagine you are managing a team of people who haven’t worked together before. You decide to schedule a lunch for the team to get acquainted and learn about the project. During which stage of team development does this scenario take place?

• Performing
• Forming
• Norming
• Storming

Q4. Imagine as a project manager on a new project, you introduce a new task check-in process to the team. The team picks up the process quickly, and you decide to continue it for the remainder of the project. During which stage of team development does this scenario take place?

• Forming
• Norming
• Storming
• Performing

Q5. What should project managers do to manage team dynamics? Select all that apply.

• Allow team members to set their own task dependencies.
• Forge a consensus and set clear goals.
• Create a safe and collaborative environment.
• Understand how to motivate the team.

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers Weekly Challenge 4

Q1. Which three of the following are benefits of teamwork?

• Fosters creativity
• Helps teams meet project goals
• Encourages accountability
• Clarifies roles and responsibilities

Q2. Which of the five factors that impact team effectiveness is the most important?

• Impact
• Dependability
• Psychological safety
• Meaning

Q3. Imagine you lead a team that keeps failing to hit its weekly targets. To help them get back on track, you ask them to record the time they spend on each task for five days. You then use this data to better scale the team’s work to hit upcoming targets. Which aspect of effective team building does this scenario demonstrate?

• Create systems that turn chaos into order
• Delegate responsibility and prioritize tasks
• Demonstrate empathy and create motivation
• Promote trust and psychological safety

Q4. In what two ways does delegating work make project managers more effective leaders?

• Allows project managers to focus on the project as a whole
• Lets team members feel safe asking questions
• Makes project managers better at meeting stakeholder needs
• Gives team members a chance to add value to the project

Q5. What responsibilities do project managers have during the forming stage of team development? Select all that apply.

• Listen as the team addresses problems
• Provide context about the project
• Establish new team norms
• Clarify project roles and goals

Q6. What can project managers do to support ethical and inclusive leadership? Select all that apply.

• Invite and integrate diverse perspectives
• Delegate tasks and motivate team members
• Foster a culture of respect
• Create equal opportunities for team members to succeed

Q7. Imagine a tech company wants to use another firm’s processor in its new laptop. The project manager writes to the firm’s CEO about the mutual benefits and projected sales numbers. Which steps of effective influencing is the project manager demonstrating? Select all that apply.

• Connect emotionally
• Frame for common ground
• Establish credibility
• Provide evidence

Q8. As a project manager, which two of the following are personal sources of power? Select all that apply.

• Character
• Role
• Information
• Knowledge

Q9. Which of the following is not a step in the ethical decision-making framework developed by the Markkula Center for Applied Ethics?

• Make a decision and test it.
• Get the facts.
• Consider the personal benefits.
• Evaluate alternative actions.

Q10. As a project manager, you want to provide air cover for your team by not explicitly saying “no” to a stakeholder’s request. Which of the following are two possible strategies to achieve this?

• Offer to get back to the stakeholder once you gather more information, which may provide time for the stakeholder to reconsider their request.
• Explain to the stakeholder that their request won’t be possible under the current constraints of the project.
• Have each teammate email the stakeholder giving their perspectives on why the request cannot be completed.
• Refer the stakeholder to project management best practices such as how to effectively complete a project.

Week 5

Project Execution: Running the Project Weekly challenge 5 Answers

Test your knowledge: Project communication

Q1. How should a project team communicate?

• The project team should use one mode of communication and rely on it consistently.
• The project team should communicate regularly and in various ways.
• The project team should stick to email communication since it is standard practice in business.
• The project team should switch communication tools frequently to increase engagement.

Q2. Which of the following communication tools could a project manager use to create a project tracking report?

• Google Meet
• Asana
• Zoom
• Slack

Q3. What are the benefits of communication tools for project managers and project teams? Select all that apply.

• They share external user access to financial, business, and user data files.
• They offer various ways to properly format communication.
• They provide clarity and consistency of project details like key dates, tasks, and milestones.
• They help project teams measure individual success compared to others on the team.

Q4. What information should you include in the subject field of an email? Select all that apply.

• What the email is about
• What your job title and contact information is
• Whether the email requires an immediate response
• Whether the email is urgent

Test your knowledge: Effective meetings

Q1. Fill in the blank: For a project manager to organize an effective meeting, they must carefully select all attendees and prioritize meeting topics in a(n) _____.

• project plan
• schedule
• communication plan
• agenda

Q2. Which of the following statements best describe effective meetings?

• They are virtual, quick, frequent, and straightforward.
• They are in-person, engaging, motivational, and anticipated.
• They are clear, important, relevant, and frequent.
• They are structured, intentional, collaborative, and inclusive.

Q3. What are some actions to take to ensure productivity during a meeting? Select all that apply.

• Determine the need for the meeting.
• Email a recap of key decisions to participants
• Capture key points, action items, and decisions.
• Practice and demonstrate active listening.
• Encourage participation.
• Prepare an agenda.

Q4. Why is it important to clearly state a meeting’s purpose and expectations in the agenda? Select all that apply.

• To help meeting attendees prepare
• To ensure everyone understands why they’re attending
• To replace a meeting with a detailed communication
• To keep participants focused on the right topics

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers Weekly Challenge 5

Q1. When you create an email, in what section should you clearly state what the email is about?

• Header
• First line of the email
• Closing line of the email
• Subject line

Q2. What are potential downsides of using instant messaging? Select all that apply.

• Difficult to track
• Quick response
• Distraction
• Informality

Q3. Fill in the blank: _____ meetings have an agenda, time limit, and designated notetaker.

• Impromptu
• Structured
• Broadcast
• Informal

Q4. Why should you send any pre-reading materials in advance of a meeting?

• Save time going over unimportant information
• Provide a summary for you during the meeting
• Skip over that information in your meeting
• Everyone is prepared to participate

Q5. Which of the following are key reasons to meet with stakeholders? Select all that apply.

• Seek out and listen to feedback
• Present a project update
• Make a decision or resolve a major issue
• Provide daily project updates

Q6. Which of the following is a best practice when trying to structure your writing in an email?

• Use bullets to make the email easier to scan.
• Avoid including hyperlinks to additional information.
• Combine multiple paragraphs into one large paragraph.
• Put the email’s main idea in the last sentence.

Q7. What actions may help make a meeting accessible for someone with a hearing impairment? Select all that apply.

• Face the person you are speaking with.
• Include all the information presented in a spoken presentation on slides.
• Speak loudly and slowly.
• Add closed captions or subtitles to videos.

Q8. According to a Google study, productive meetings have what three elements in common?

• Active participation from attendees, a clear and concise agenda, and the correct attendees
• No personal discussion, a length of at least 30 minutes, and a clear and concise agenda
• A clear and concise agenda, the participation of three or fewer participants, and the correct attendees
• At length of at least 30 minutes, active participation from attendees, and the correct attendees

Q9. In a status update meeting, what questions does the project manager typically address? Select all that apply.

• Is the team behind schedule, ahead of schedule, or on-schedule?
• How many tasks have been completed and how many remain?
• Are there any new costs that affect the bottom line?
• Are there any current or anticipated issues?
• What lessons can the team learn about what’s going well?

Q10. Which type of meeting is typically more formal, starts with a project update, and may include a decision to resolve a major issue?

• Retrospective
• Project kick-off
• Stakeholder review
• Status update

Project Execution: Running the Project Week 6 Quiz Answers

Test your knowledge: Closing a project

Q1. Which of the following criteria must be met in order to close a project? Select all that apply.

• Project work has been completed
• Agreed-upon project management processes have been executed
• Project team members have started new positions
• Key stakeholders have acknowledged and agreed that the project is complete

Q2. Which type of projects should a project manager avoid getting involved in because it can negatively impact their team? Select all that apply.

• Challenging projects
• Never-ending projects
• Abandoned projects
• Short-term projects

Q3. What type of project exists when an incomplete handoff results in a final deliverable that never reaches the customer?

• Never-ending project
• Abandoned project
• Scope-protected project
• Closed project

Q4. What type of project exists when project deliverables and tasks cannot be completed?

• Never-ending project
• Abandoned project
• Scope-protected project
• Closed project

Week 6

Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers Weekly Challenge 6

Q1. What happens during a project closing? Select all that apply.

• The customer identifies new deliverables and ongoing task work.
• The project manager and team confirms all project tasks are complete.
• The team obtains formal recognition from key stakeholders that the project is complete.
• The team executes remaining project management processes, such as procedural or administrative work.

Q2. What steps should a project manager take to make sure a project is closed? Select all that apply.

• Get formal recognition from stakeholders that the project is done
• Ensure all agreed upon project management processes are complete
• Confirm all tasks and work are complete
• Spend any remaining funds in the project’s budget

Q3. Consider the following project closing scenario:

The project manager does a final review of tasks and deliverables to ensure they are complete. They make sure there is written proof from stakeholders documenting that they are happy with the outcome. The project manager leads a meeting with the team to document what went well, what could be improved, and overall lessons learned. Finally, the team is disbanded, and the project manager thanks them for their work. What step of the project closing phase is the project manager missing?

• Ensure the project has satisfied its deliverables, goals, and desired outcomes
• Document acceptance of the project outcome
• Review all contracts and documentation
• Conduct a formal retrospective with the project team

Q4. What are the main purposes of a closeout report? Select all that apply.

• Evaluates the project’s performance with respect to budget and schedule
• Gives the project manager time to meet with the team one last time to complete missing work
• Provides an evaluation of the quality of work
• Serves as a blueprint to document what the team did, how they did it, and what they delivered

Q5. During the closing process, how can you ensure the project has satisfied its goals and desired outcomes? Select all that apply.

• Ensure there are no funds left in the budget
• Check all tasks and deliverables are completed
• Poll teammates on their level of satisfaction with the project
• Check the full scope of the work is complete

Q6. What should a project manager do to ensure an effective closing process? Select all that apply.

• The project manager hosts a retrospective meeting for the team.
• The project manager confirms the work is done and the agreed-upon closing processes are executed.
• The project manager completes a project closeout report.
• The project manager gives the stakeholders an impact reporting presentation.
• The project manager invites the stakeholders to provide the notes from their independent retrospective.

Q7. Fill in the blank: A retrospective is an opportunity for _____.

• reflection and improvement
• planning and introspection
• criticism and collaboration
• feedback and lecture

Q8. For what three reasons is it important to close a project once it is complete?

• It helps project managers avoid incidents such as abandoned projects or never-ending projects.
• It protects the credibility of the project manager and project team.
• It ensures an effective change management process.
• It helps an organization avoid unfavorable scenarios, such as stakeholders that are unaware the project has ended.

Q9. Which document acts as a blueprint for what the team did, how they did it, and what they delivered?

• Project closeout report
• Retrospective review
• ROAM analysis
• Impact report

Q10. Which of the following are true regarding a team celebration at the end of a project? Select all that apply.

• It can be a team-building exercise.
• It fuels positive change within the team.
• It helps improve collaboration on future projects.
• It typically needs to be approved by stakeholders.

Conclusion:

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